Hi Guys Hoping someone on here can shed some light on a question I have. I listed an item for sale on ebay last week which sold following day with buyer paying immediately by echeck, so am in process of waiting for payment to clear. Earlier today, 5 days after transaction, the buyer contacts me to say that he did not buy the item and ebay is at fault for the purchase. I have been chatting with ebay and said they would not act on the buyers behalf and that someone else could have logged into his account and made the purchase without their knowledge. Personally, I think the buyer is lying since it is unlikely that someone would have done this as well as log into their respective Paypal account to make the purchase. Additionally, why would the buyer wait 5 days to notify me of this, since they would have been made aware of both the ebay and Paypal transactions via their email. In my opinion, I think the buyer has now got cold feet and does not want to proceed with the purchase and has used an excuse of ebay being at fault, even though clearly this is not the case. If someone else had accessed their account, then the buyer would have used that as an excuse, not one where they say that ebay made the purchase without his knowledge and similarly payment via payal, how did that happen? So what I would like to know is, can the buyer stop the echeck? It is due to clear in next few days, so interested to know what the state of play is. Thanks in advance for your help.
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