Hello,
I have two payments from the US, one is higher than the other and both paid from client via paypal invoice request.
Now...both of these payments have fees applied...
...what I don't understand is that the lower cost invoice has a higher fee applied...the higher invoice has a lower fee applied when compared.
...in other words, the lower valued invoice has a fee -$59.84, but the higher valued invoice has a fee -$45.00.
...if fees are done by %, then one would think a lower valued invoice would have a lower fee?
...now...the only difference i can see between the two (other than the illogical fees) is that the lower valued invoice has:
payment type = instant
...but the higher valued invoice has:
payment type = echeque
...if the US client is paying the same way, why would the payment types be different?
many thanks in advance for clarification.
...now...as the higher valued invoice has a payment type = echeque, would the fee have been less on the lower valued invoice if that was echeque too (as opposed to instant)?
many thanks in advance for clarification.
...now also bear in mind that this fee is not the only one, as paypals currency conversion is also a law unto itself.
